LATEST MCCQE TEST QUESTIONS | CERTIFICATION MCCQE EXAM

Latest MCCQE Test Questions | Certification MCCQE Exam

Latest MCCQE Test Questions | Certification MCCQE Exam

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Tags: Latest MCCQE Test Questions, Certification MCCQE Exam, Trustworthy MCCQE Pdf, MCCQE Detailed Answers, MCCQE Customized Lab Simulation

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q78-Q83):

NEW QUESTION # 78
A 45-year-old man with a developmental delay and a history of disruptive behavior presents to the clinic looking for his family doctor. He is well known to the clinic. He appears drunk and has accidentally broken 2 large beer bottles in the waiting room but remains calm. The office staff requests your help to deal with this situation. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial step?

  • A. Call the police, given the patient's presentation.
  • B. Call the social work crisis intervention team.
  • C. Instruct the office staff to ignore him and let him calm down.
  • D. Assess the patient promptly.
  • E. Tell the patient that his behavior is unacceptable and ask him to leave.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is a known patient with intellectual disability and behavioral concerns. The presentation of alcohol intoxication in a calm patient who inadvertently broke bottles warrants prompt, nonjudgmental clinical assessment before escalating. De-escalation and safety assessment come first.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Psychiatric Emergencies and Crisis Management":
"In agitated or intoxicated individuals with developmental disability, a calm approach and prompt physician assessment are essential to prevent escalation and assess for medical or psychiatric needs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > Crisis and Acute Presentations > 72-2):
"Candidates must assess potentially disruptive patients with dignity and caution before involving law enforcement or security. Physician engagement is often calming." Police intervention (A) is premature and may escalate matters. Ignoring (B) risks safety. Asking him to leave (C) without assessment is inappropriate. Social work (E) may help, but after medical triage.


NEW QUESTION # 79
A 35-year-old man comes to your office with a history of headaches that last 1 hour and are relieved by 1000 mg of acetaminophen. These headaches, which started 6 months ago after he got his first job as a lawyer, occur regularly. The patient wants a computed tomography scan of his head to rule out a tumour. Physical examination reveals no abnormality. Review of systems does not contribute any positive findings. Which one of the following is the best management?

  • A. Reassure the patient.
  • B. Order a computed tomography of the head.
  • C. Prescribe stronger pain relief medications.
  • D. Refer the patient to a neurologist for further investigations.
  • E. Refer the patient to a psychiatrist for anxiety disorder.

Answer: A

Explanation:
This patient's headache is consistent with tension-type or stress-related headache. The symptoms are mild, responsive to over-the-counter medications, and without red flags (neurologic signs, worsening pattern, nocturnal pain). Reassurance is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology, "Headache" Section:
"In the absence of red flags (e.g., sudden onset, focal deficits, age >50, worsening pattern), reassurance is the best course. Tension headaches are often related to stress and improve with lifestyle modification and simple analgesia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-6: Neurologic Symptoms):
"Candidates should recognize benign headache patterns and avoid unnecessary investigations." CT head (B) is not indicated. Stronger analgesics (D) may cause rebound headache. Specialist or psychiatric referrals (A, E) are premature.


NEW QUESTION # 80
A 60-year-old man presents because of a 6-month history of involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements.
His medical history is significant for schizophrenia, which has been very stable with haloperidol for the past
20 years. When educating the patient about these particular symptoms, which one of the following statements is accurate?

  • A. His condition is potentially irreversible
  • B. These movements occur in the majority of patients who are taking antipsychotics
  • C. Anticholinergics are effective treatments for this condition
  • D. The symptoms will gradually decrease in intensity as he gets older

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has tardive dyskinesia, a late-onset, often irreversible movement disorder caused by chronic dopamine receptor blockade (e.g., haloperidol). It is especially common in older adults and may not resolve after stopping the drug.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Extrapyramidal Symptoms":
"Tardive dyskinesia is often irreversible and typically occurs after prolonged antipsychotic use. Elderly patients are at greater risk." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Side Effects of Psychotropics):
"Candidates must recognize tardive dyskinesia and understand that it can persist or worsen even after discontinuation of antipsychotics." Anticholinergics may worsen it (D). The condition does not reliably improve with age (C). It does not affect a majority of patients (A).


NEW QUESTION # 81
You have been asked to develop a program in your hospital for people who are at the highest risk of death by suicide. The hospital administrator asks you to describe the types of patients they should expect in the program. Which one of the following groups is the most likely prominent demographic?

  • A. Men aged 50 to 70 years who have limited social supports and alcohol use disorder
  • B. Women aged 20 to 40 years who have cluster B personality disorders and experience relationship losses
  • C. Patients of both sexes who have psychotic disorders
  • D. Women aged 14 to 20 years who have histories of being abused and who are experiencing financial hardships
  • E. Men aged 11 to 20 years who have histories of juvenile delinquency and narcotic use

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Middle-aged to older men with social isolation and substance use disorders (especially alcohol) are among the highest-risk groups for completed suicide. They are less likely to seek help and often use more lethal methods.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Suicide Risk Assessment":
"High-risk demographics include older men, social isolation, comorbid alcohol use, and chronic illness. These patients have the highest rates of completed suicide." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Suicide Risk):
"Candidates must recognize epidemiologic risk factors for completed suicide, including demographics and comorbidities." Although women and youth have higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts, men over 50 have the highest completion rates.


NEW QUESTION # 82
A 73-year-old woman is seen in the office 2 weeks after a coronary bypass surgical procedure. The site of saphenous vein removal in the left thigh shows an area of tenderness and a 3 × 5 cm palpable mass. The skin is intact. Her temperature is 37.7 °C, hemoglobin is 110 g/L (125-167), and white blood cell count is 8 × 10#
/L (4-10). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Wound abscess
  • B. Acute venous bleeding
  • C. Thrombophlebitis
  • D. Wound hematoma
  • E. Femoral artery aneurysm

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
A localized mass with tenderness at a recent surgical site, intact skin, low-grade temperature, and normal white count is most consistent with a wound hematoma. This is a common complication at saphenous vein graft harvest sites post-CABG.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery / Cardiac:
"Wound hematoma presents as localized swelling and tenderness near recent surgical sites. Abscess is suggested by erythema, warmth, and systemic signs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-2: Postoperative Complications):
"Candidates must identify and differentiate wound complications, including hematoma, seroma, and abscess." Abscess (E) would show redness, fluctuance, and fever. Aneurysm (B) is rare and pulsatile. Bleeding (A) would not form a stable mass 2 weeks post-op. Thrombophlebitis (C) usually involves superficial veins and erythema.
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NEW QUESTION # 83
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